Bản in của bài viết

1.

Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
	OSPF
	RIP v1
	RIP v2
	EIGRP
	BGP
	STP

2.

Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
	It does not support authentication.
	It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
	It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
	It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
	It does not support equal-cost load balancing.

3.

How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
	They both use hop count as a metric.
	They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
	They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
	They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
	They both provide for authentication of update sources.
	They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

4.

Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
	router# show ip route
	router# show route
	router# show ip rip
	router# show rip
	router# show protocol

5.

What is the purpose of a default route?
	A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
	A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
	A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
	A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.

6.

The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
	1
	2
	4
	6
	8
	16

7.

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
	/31
	/30
	/29
	/28
	/27
	/26

8.

Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
	XYZ(config)# router ospf
	XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
	XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
	XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
	XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
	XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10

9.

Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
	administrative distance
	cost
	hop count
	link delay

10.

Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
	Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
	The interfaces are on different network types.
	The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
	Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
	Authentication passwords or keys are different.

11.

Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router? 2 11 12 65 66

12.

What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
	designated routers
	a backup designated router
	neighbor adjacencies
	an NBMA network topology
	links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

13.

Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.) collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network view of network from neighbor's perspective independent calculation of best paths to all destinations propagation of incorrect information minimized demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity

14.

Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
	LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
	LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
	LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
	LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
	Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
	LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.

15.

Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
	broadcast
	loopback
	multicast
	unicast

16.

What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.) R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network. R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network. R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network. R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network. R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network. R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.

17.

If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
	the route flagged as active in the topology table
	the feasible successor route in the topology table
	the default gateway in the neighbor table
	the primary designated route in the topology table
	the backup designated router in the routing table

18.

What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
	The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
	The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
	The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
	There is no activity on the route to that network.
	The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

19.

Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
	PDM
	RTP
	DUAL
	LSA

20.

Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
	routing table and topology table
	neighbor table and routing table
	neighbor table and topology table
	neighbor table and adjacency table

21.

How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch? 2 3 4 7 8 10

22.

How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
	allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
	decreases the number of broadcast domains
	increases network latency
	eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
	reduces the size of collision domains
	increases the number of collision domains

23.

An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic? forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3 add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table forward the frame out Interface3 discard the frame forward the frame out all interfaces forward the frame out Interface2

24.

Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor? transceiver hub MAU router switch

25.

Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
	Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
	Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
	Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
	Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
	Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
	Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.

26.

Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
	VLAN routing
	MAC layer filtering
	security
	microsegmentation
	packet filtering with access control lists
	workgroup access

27.

Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
	gateway
	access
	distribution
	network
	core
	domain

28.

Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity? adaptability manageability scalability functionality

29.

What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
	1 Mbps
	10 Mbps
	100 Mbps
	1000 Mbps
	1 Gbps

30.

Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.) multilayer routers multilayer switches bridges managed hubs VLANs a switch with a router module

31.

What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
	location
	throughput
	user proficiency
	response time
	workstation speed
	access to resources

32.

When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
	no link
	port is not forwarding
	port is sending or receiving data
	port is sending, but not receiving
	link fault

33.

How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.) Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses. The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

34.

Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
	VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
	All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
	Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
	All interfaces are set to auto.
	Enable password is configured as cisco.
	The flash directory contains the IOS image.

35.

Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
	Switch# copy startup-config tftp
	Switch# copy tftp startup-config
	Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
	Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
	Switch# copy tftp flash

36.

An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
	The switch should be reconfigured.
	The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
	The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
	The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.

37.

Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
	The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
	VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
	The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
	The switch hostname has not been set.

38.

A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
	broadcast storms
	routing loops
	multiple frame copies
	load balancing
	unicast frame forwarding

39.

A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
	TTL
	STP
	BID
	BPDU
	ARP

40.

In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
	blocking
	learning
	disabled
	listening
	forwarding

41.

Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.) Eliminate single points of failure. Flood frames for unknown destinations. Send multiple frames to an end device. Design alternate routes to a destination. Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network. Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.

42.

Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
	discarding data traffic
	receiving data traffic
	forwarding data traffic
	recalculating BPDUs
	receiving BPDUs
	blocking BPDUs

43.

Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
	Cat-A
	Cat-B
	Cat-C
	Cat-D

44.

The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
	1
	3
	5
	one per trunk port

45.

While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
	The no vlan all command was entered.
	The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
	The no vlan 1 command was entered.
	The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
	The no default vlan command was entered.
	The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.

46.

A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
	A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
	A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
	A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
	No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
	The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.

47.

Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
	port-centric
	static
	dynamic
	geographic

48.

Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
	Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
	Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
	Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
	Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
	Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.

49.

Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
	multiple logical route VnVista I-Shine © http://vnvista.com